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Exam Number/Code: 642-426
Exam Name: Troubleshooting Unified Communications (TUC)
Questions and Answers: 48 Q&As
Price: $79.00
Update Time: 2009-7-4

1. Which three capabilities cannot be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
A. disable DID
B. invoke a Tcl application
C. enable dtmf-relay
D. disable VAD
E. set codec to G.711
F. set preference to 1
Answer: BCD

2. Cisco CallManager 5.0 has just been deployed in two locations across a wide-area link. A distributed model with an intercluster trunk has been used. When you call an IP phone at the remote site the phone rings, but as soon as the other person picks up the phone, the call is dropped.
Where should you look to diagnose the problem?
A. locations
B. system parameters
C. media resource group
D. Cisco Unified CallManager group
E. Cisco Unified CallManager CTI traces
Answer: C

3. Your company has a centralized IP Telephony system and branch offices in eight major cities. The manager of your company help desk recently published local access numbers for external customers to reduce the costs associated with your company’s toll-free 800 service. However, when customers call the new local numbers they hear a reorder tone instead of your centralized IVR.
What is the best solution to this issue?
A. Deploy transcoders at each remote location.
B. Deploy transcoders at the central location.
C. Deploy Cisco Unified IP IVRs at each remote location.
D. Increase the number of ports in the centralized IVR.
Answer: B

4. You have received a trouble ticket stating that an executive with an account at a bank cannot retrieve account information by phone. When the executive calls the bank, the call is answered and the executive is prompted to enter the account code. However, the bank does not seem to recognize the DTMF tones and disconnects the call.
What is a possible solution to this problem?
A. Configure the voice rtp send-recv command in the gateway.
B. Set the Cisco Unified CallManager service parameter ToSendH225UserInfoMsg to True.
C. Configure the progress_ind setup enable 3 command under the gateway VoIP dial peer.
D. Configure the progress_ind alert enable 8 command under the gateway POTS dial peer.
Answer: A

5. Partition A contains four route patterns. The calling search space assigned to Device B contains only Partition A. When Device B dials 1136, which of the route patterns will be selected?
A. 1[14]XX
B. 11X!
C. 1[^2-8]XX
D. 1[1-4]XX
Answer: B

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1. What are three features of the Cisco IOS Firewall feature set? (Choose three.)
A. network-based application recognition (NBAR)
B. authentication proxy
C. stateful packet filtering
D. AAA services
E. proxy server
F. IPS
Answer: BCF

2. Refer to the exhibit, which shows a PPPoA diagram and partial SOHO77 configuration. Which command needs to be applied to the SOHO77 to complete the configuration?
A. encapsulation aal5snap applied to the PVC.
B. encapsulation aal5ciscoppp applied to the PVC
C. encapsulation aal5ciscoppp applied to the ATM0 interface
D. encapsulation aal5mux ppp dialer applied to the ATM0 interface
E. encapsulation aal5mux ppp dialer applied to the PVC
Answer: E

3. Which three techniques should be used to secure management protocols? (Choose three.)
A. Configure SNMP with only read-only community strings.
B. Encrypt TFTP and syslog traffic in an IPSec tunnel.
C. Implement RFC 2827 filtering at the perimeter router when allowing syslog access from devices on the outside of a firewall.
D. Synchronize the NTP master clock with an Internet atomic clock.
E. Use SNMP version 2.
F. Use TFTP version 3 or above because these versions support a cryptographic authentication mechanism between peers.
Answer: ABC

4. Which two active response capabilities can be configured on an intrusion detection system (IDS) in response to malicious traffic detection? (Choose two.)
A. the initiation of dynamic access lists on the IDS to prevent further malicious traffic
B. the configuration of network devices to prevent malicious traffic from passing through
C. the shutdown of ports on intermediary devices
D. the transmission of a TCP reset to the offending end host
E. the invoking of SNMP-sourced controls
Answer: BD

5. What are three objectives that the no ip inspect command achieves? (Choose three.)
A. removes the entire CBAC configuration
B. removes all associated static ACLs
C. turns off the automatic audit feature in SDM
D. denies HTTP and Java applets to the inside interface but permits this traffic to the DMZ
E. resets all global timeouts and thresholds to the defaults
F. deletes all existing sessions
Answer: AEF

Exam Number/Code: HP2-061
Exam Name: HP ProLiant Server Maintenance
Questions and Answers: 365 Q&As
Price: $120.00
Update Time: 2009-7-1

1. Whatare features of HP Systems Insight Manager? Select FOUR.
A. device discovery
B. extended integration
C. fundamental integration
D. easy and rapid installation
E. secure remote management
F. web browser and command-line interface
Answer: ABDE

2. What are properties of Advanced Data Guarding? Select TWO.
A. It is recommended for up to 14 drives.
B. It protects against a ROM failure or corruption.
C. It protects against two simultaneous drive failures.
D. It allocates two sets of parity data across the drives and allows simultaneous write operations.
E. It allocates half of the drive to data and the other half to mirrored data, providing two copies of every file.
Answer: CD
Explanation:
Only select Smart Array controllers offer HP Advanced Data Guarding (RAID ADG), which offers:
? Higher fault tolerance than RAID 5
? Lower implementation costs than RAID 1+0
? Greater usable capacity per U than RAID 1
When using the HP patented RAID ADG technology, you can safely deploy large-capacity hard drives and create large storage volumes. RAID ADG is a proprietary version of RAID 6 and it is thus frequently called RAID 6. RAID ADG protects data from multiple drive failures and is able to withstand two simultaneous hard drive failures without data loss or downtime. RAID ADG uses two sets of parity striped across the disks. This method provides protection for an array with up to 56 drives and requires only two drives to store the parity information. To implement RAID ADG, a minimum of four drives is required. Although RAID ADG provides the dual advantages of increased fault tolerance and high capacity, it does so at the cost of performance, which is less than that of other RAID levels. The RAID ADG performance equals RAID 5 performance when reading data, but it is slower when writing data because of the extra parity data.

3. Which statements are true regarding PCI-X technology?Select TWO.
A. In a PCI-X system the speed is determined by the fastest device.
B. Conventional PCI adapters can operate in PCI-X systems and vice versa.
C. A PCI-X adapter placed on a conventional PCI bus is not limited to conventional PCI speeds.
D. PCI-X is forward and backward compatible with PCI 2.2 systems at the system, device driver and adapter levels.
Answer: AB

4. Which Remote Management offering allows graphic and text virtual console?
A. iLO 2
B. RILOE II
C. iLO Advanced
D. Lights-Out 100
Answer: B

5. What are the two essential building blocks of modular PDUs? Select TWO.
A. control unit
B. extension bars
C. SNMP/serial card
D. extended runtime module
E. 1U/0U mounting brackets
Answer: CE

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